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I had a collision with a cyclist was completely spaced out and slammed into the side of my car. My car was badly damaged and the guy was injured and his bike was totaled. The cyclist was completely at fault, but I was just informed that I have to cover part of the damages. Why would I have to cover damages when I am not at fault?
Hi there,
When an accident involves both a motorcar driver and a pedestrian or a driver of a non-motorized vehicle, the motorcar driver may be held liable for part of the costs even when they are not at fault.
The reason for this is that they hold greater accountability due to the danger which motorcars pose to other road users.
Best regards from Moneyguru
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